An EXCELLENT Vid!! How Similar ARE Arabic and Hebrew?

https://youtu.be/4TbbPzJlV2A?si=zYkYMlp8U_7prZoR

And My Comment:

As a native Hebrew speaker (as well as Writer, Editor, Translator and Language Teacher), I cannot really understand Arabic - just a few cognate words here and there, of course, but that's about it.

By the way, here are a few minor corrections:

In fact, Hebrew had (seemingly) ceased to be used in daily speech already during the babylonian exile, back during the 6th century BCE. The Jewish people of the 2nd temple's era (516 BCE - 70 CE = the Persian, Helenistic and early Roman eras) spoke predominantly Aramaic, and had gradually become less and less fluent in Hebrew, so much so that in the Book of Daniel (the latest Book in the Bible, which was written some time around 165 BCE, on the time of the maccabbim's anti-helenistic rebelion), it had felt far more natural for its writer to use Aramaic, than Hebrew.

The form "ha`Ém shellì" for "my Mother" does not exist. In the more accurate, educated and literary form, people say "`Immì", while the colloquial form is "`Ìmma` shellì".

And, in fact, Hebrew does have one case mark:

For singular third person feminine (and only for that), Hebrew has the mapìq (מפּיק), which is a special dot in the letter héy (ה) at the end of the word: הּ, which means this héy should be rad and pronounced as an /h/ consonant, instead of just filling a spot after an /à/ sound. So, "her(s)" in Hebrew, written "שׁלּהּ", should be pronounced /shellàh/ and not /shellà/ - notice the difference?

So, for example, "her (masculine) child" is "ילדּהּ" = /yaldàh/ - which, if not for this one small dot in the letter ה, would be "ילדּה" = /yalda/ = "a female child = a little girl".

This uses for the Genitive, the Accusative, and the Dative; however, a native Hebrew speaker would not normally be aware of these case-names, would not know them, until we happen to come across them while studying other Languages, which happen to have a more vivid case system.